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Preterism: The Greek Word ''Mello'' and its Questionable Usage In Acts 26:22-23
Posted on Monday, August 16 @ 07:44:08 PDT by Virgil

Preterism JHB submitted: "I have a question concerning the usage of the Greek word mello as found twice in Acts 26:22-23. It appears to me that the "imminency" or "impending" aspect of this particular Greek word, as easily discerned in the vast majority of its occurrences in the New Testament, is violated in these verses.

On the surface it appears in these two verses that the "prophets and Moses" spoke of distant future events as though "imminent" and "impending." Here are the two verses as found in two very literal translations:


ANALYTICAL-LITERAL VERSION

26:22 “Therefore, having obtained help from God, until this day I have stood testifying both to small and to great, saying nothing except what both the Prophets and Moses spoke of [as] BEING ABOUT TO BE [Gr. Mello] taking place,

26:23 that the Christ is subject to suffering, that [being the] first from [the] resurrection of the dead, He is ABOUT TO BE [Gr. Mello] proclaiming light to the [Jewish] people and to the Gentiles.”


CONCORDANT LITERAL NEW TESTAMENT

26:22 “Happening, then, on assistance from God, until this day I stand attesting both to small and to great, saying nothing outside of what both the prophets and Moses speak of IMPENDING [Gr., Mello] occurrences — if it be the suffering Christ —

26:23 if He, the first out of a resurrection of the dead, IS ABOUT TO BE [Gr., Mello] announcing light both to the {Jewish} people and to the nations.”

Before I ask for your answers allow me to make a couple of comments. First, I believe that the latter usage of mello in verse 23 is what the former usage of mello in verse 22 was referring or alluding to.

In other words the first usage of mello in verse 22 is limited to its obvious application in verse 23--i.e., "He IS ABOUT TO BE [Gr., Mello] announcing light both to the {Jewish} people and to the nations."

Hence, mello would in no way be referring to the Passion (verse 22) and Resurrection (verse 23)--both being obviously past--and, therefore, could not be viewed as "about to be" occurring.

Perhaps, from Dr. Luke's perspective (when writing Acts) this event--i.e., "He IS ABOUT TO BE [Gr., Mello] announcing light both to the {Jewish} people and to the nations"--was still in his, and in his audiences', immediate future.

Could Dr. Luke's usage of mello been referring to the collapse of Judaism in the Great Revolt of AD 66-73 and the subsequent full coming of the Kingdom?

Or, are more "imminent" events in view? It seems that the 70th week of Daniel 9's prophecy was wholly about "announcing light...to the {Jewish} people", and that upon its fulfillment, God went about "announcing light...to the {Gentile} nations." I thought the writing of Acts would have post-dated the start of BOTH of these landmark events.

Can anyone shed light upon this apparently contradictory usage of the word mello?"

 
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Re: The Greek Word ''Mello'' and its Questionable Usage In Acts 26:22-23 (Score: 1)
by JRP on Monday, August 16 @ 13:05:51 PDT
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JHB,

Thanks for pointing out this problem, although I have to say that I'm completely stumped. I not sure if we're looking at this from the wrong perspective... or maybe we need the help of a Greek expert.


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