“In the following directives I have no praise for you, for your meetings do more harm than good. In the first place, I hear that when you come together as a church, (“church” being people NOT the building) there are divisions among you, and to some extent I believe it. Not doubt there have to be differences among you to show which of you have God’s approval. When you come together, it is not the Lord’s Supper you eat, for as you eat, each of you goes ahead without waiting for anybody else. One remains hungry and another gets drunk. Don’t you have homes to eat and drink in? Or do you despise the church of God and humiliate those who have nothing? What shall I say to you? Shall I praise you for this? Certainly not! For I received from the Lord what I also passed on to you: The Lord Jesus, on the night he was betrayed took bread, and broke it and said, “This is my body, which is for you; do this in remembrance (call to mind or a memorial) of me.” In the same way, after supper he took the cup, saying, “This cup is the new covenant in my blood; do this whenever you drink it, in remembrance of me.” For whenever you eat this bread and drink this cup, you proclaim (declare) the Lord’s death until he comes. (leaving one place and going to another) Therefore, whoever eats the bread or drinks the cup of the Lord in an unworthy manner will guilty of sinning against (liable for) the body and blood of the Lord. A man ought to examine (test or prove) himself before he eats of the bread and drinks of the cup. For anyone who eats and drinks without recognizing (to distinguish) the body of the Lord eats and drinks judgment on himself. That is why many among you are weak and sick, and a number of you have fallen asleep. But if we judged ourselves, we would no come under judgement. (pass judgement on or condemn) When we are judged by the Lord, we are being disciplined so that we will not be condemned with the world. So then, my brothers, when you come together (assemble) to eat, wait for each other. If anyone is hungry, he should eat at home, so that when you meet together it may not result in judgement…..”

In this text, it appears that the church in Corinth was having a full course meal along with the “Lord’s Supper”. Some were eating and getting drunk, while other were not eating at all and going hungry. In addition, in this text it is saying that the Lord’s Supper is to be viewed as a memorial of Jesus’ death on the cross. If we are still to partake of the Lord’s Supper and we partake it in an “unworthy manner” what judgement are we under? Is the judgement that Paul is talking about the 70 AD judgement or a future judgement? How are we partaking the Lord’s Supper and where is the scripture to prove it? The scriptures clearly teach that the bread means his body (Matthew 26:26, Mark 14:22, Luke 22:19, 1 Corinthians 10:17) and his body is the church (Colossians 1:24) and the “cup”, ”fruit of the vine”, his blood”, which means the New Covenant. In 70 AD, the New Covenant was fully completed. The first century Christians was looking forward for the New Covenant through the blood of Christ and was told to remember it.

In Matthew’s account, the disciples came to Jesus and asked Him, “Where do you want us to make preparations for you to eat the Passover?”(26:17) It is from here that man has comes up with the phase “The Lord’s Supper”. This phase is never used in the Bible, but is taught as fact.

Matthew 26:27-28 puts it this way.

“….Drink from it, all of you. This is my blood of the covenant, which is poured out for many for the forgiveness of sins. I tell you, I will not drink of this fruit of the vine from now on until that day when I drink it anew with you in my Father’s kingdom.”

Luke 22:14 and 18 puts it this way. “….I have eagerly desired to eat this Passover with you before I suffer. For I tell you, I will not eat it again until if finds fulfillment in the kingdom of God.” Verse 18: “For I tell you I will not drink again of the fruit of the vine until the kingdom of God comes.” Verse 20: “…This cup is the new covenant in my blood…”

According to the context, Jesus will not eat what? The Passover, until when? 70 AD, at the fulfillment of the kingdom of God. Notice it is still talking about the Passover not the Lord’s Supper. Why would Jesus remember his own death, burial, and resurrection?

I would like to pose some questions, here.

When was “until that day”? 70 AD Who was Jesus taking to in this text? His disciples When did the “Father’s kingdom” come? 70 AD (1 Corinthians 15:24) When did the “new covenant” come? 70 AD

If the blood is the “Covenant” or in the other gospels, the “New Covenant” and the first century Christians were looking forward for that New Covenant, then yes the meaning of the supper would make sense. If Christ has not come then we will still are living under the Old Covenant and still looking forward for a New Covenant. (Hebrews 8:13, 10:8-9) The supper would still be just like the first century Christians. The forgiveness of sin did not happen until Jesus’ return. (Hebrews 9:23-28, Luke 21:28, Revelation 10:7) We are under the New Covenant, today. Everything has been fulfilled.

Now let us define something here. What do these words or phases mean, for example: In Acts 2:42, its says,

“They devoted themselves to the apostles’ teaching and to the fellowship, to the breaking of bread and to prayer.”

Also in Acts 20:7: “On the first day of the week we came together to break bread. Paul spoke to the people and, because he intended to leave the next day, kept on talking until midnight.” After Eutychus fell into a deep sleep, fell out a three-story building, and was pronounce dead. Paul raised him back to life, verse 10. “Then he went upstairs again and broke bread and ate…”

Cecil Hook wrote in Free in Christ about this text. “We use this text to prove that the Lord’s Supper it be taken on Sunday’s, (We call this the Lord’s day for some reason, like Monday and the other are not the Lord’s Day, emph. RKM), BUT we assume that this “breaking of bread” is the Communion rather than a love feast or fellowship meal. Although there is no proof of it, we will grant that it was the Communion for argument’s sake. If they met to commune, it does not indicate that they had been doing so previously or that they continued to do so the next week and thereafter. There is no indication that this was done except on that particular weekend. This is the only time the breaking of bread is mentioned in the connection with the first day of the week!

There is no clear example of the Lord’s Supper ever being eaten on the first day of the week. At Toras, it they met according to Roman (and our) manner of reckoning time, they met to eat it on our Sunday night, but did not partake until Monday morning, because of Paul’s long discourse. If they followed the Jewish calendar, they met to partake of it on our Saturday night. Would we be right in participation on Saturday night or Monday morning.”

What is “the breaking of bread”?

The “breaking of bread” is generally associated with the Lord’s Supper. Nevertheless, there is nothing in the context to indicate that this activity is the Lord’s Supper. The expression breaking of bread is also an idiom for a common meal. In fact, in Acts 2:46-47, one reads: Every day they continued to meet together in the temple courts. They broke bread in their homes and ate together with glad and sincere hearts, praising God and enjoying the favor of all the people”. If the “breaking of bread’ refers to the Lord’s Supper, then they observed the communion a daily basis, not just on Sundays.

Which of these nine examples of details concerning the so call “Lord’s Supper” are binding? It was eaten:

1. at night
2. upstairs
3. in midweek
4. during another meal
5. with no women present
6. one loaf
7. of unleavened bread
8. one cup
9. of Passover wine which could not have been fresh grape juice at that season.

Which exemplified details are binding and which are not? If God means what he says and He says what he means, then by examples and with the right attitude the Lord’s Supper should be kept. The first century Christians had hope by looking for salvation and the resurrection, after 70 AD we have assurance and everything has been fulfilled.

Is there a difference between the “Lord’s supper” and “supper of the Lamb”? Are there two different types of suppers being taught in the Bible?

Turn to Revelation 19:6-9:

“’…. Hallelujah!! For our Lord God Almighty reigns. Let us rejoice and be glad and give him glory! For the wedding of the Lamb has come and his bride has make herself ready. Fine linen, bright and clean, was given her to wear.” Then the angel said to me, “Write, Blessed are those who are invited to the wedding supper of the Lamb!’….”

Also in verse 17: “And I saw an angel standing in the sun, who cried in a loud voice to all the birds flying in midair, Come, gather together for the great supper of God,…”

What is this “supper of the Lamb” or “supper of God”? In 19:6-9 it is talking about a wedding supper. To me the first thing that comes to mind in Matthew 25:1-13.

“At that time the kingdom of heaven (kingdom of God, both are the same) will be like ten virgins who took their lamps and when out to meet the bridegroom. Five of them were foolish and five were wise. The foolish ones took their lamps but did not take any oil with them. The wise, however, took oil in jars along with their lamps. The bridegroom was a long time in coming and thy all became drowsy and fell asleep. At midnight, the cry rang out: ‘Here’s the bridegroom! Come out to meet him!’ The all the virgins’ woke up and trimmed their lamps. The foolish ones said to the wise, ‘Give us some of your oil’ our lamps are going out.’ ‘No’, they replied, ‘there may not be enough for both you and us. Instead, go to those who sell oil and buy some for yourselves.’ “But while they were on their way to buy the oil, the bridegroom arrived. The virgins who were ready went in and with him to the wedding banquet (or supper). “Later the others also came. ‘Sir! Sir!’ they said. ‘Open the door for us! “But he replied, ‘I tell you the truth, I don’t know you,’ “Therefore keep watch, because you do not know the day or the hour.”

This sounds much like Matthew 24:36,42-44, All it talking about 70 AD.

What did the “Passover” mean to the Jews? In Exodus 12, it describes the requirements, when to eat it, how to eat it and it also describes what the Passover meant. It was also called “Feast of Unleavened Bread, verse 17. The Jews were told to get the “Passover lamb”, slaughter it and take its blood and put it on the top and both sides of the doorframe, verse 21-22. In 13:3, it tells us that the children of Israel were to “Commemorate this day, the day you came out of Egypt, out of slavery…” Also in 13:14-16). They were to do this ordinance at the appointed time year after year, verse 10.

Jesus is described as the “Passover Lamb” in 1 Corinthians 5:7. His blood was on the top of the cross, because of the thorns on his head and the blood from his back and his blood from his feet. There was blood on both sides, his hands. The first century people were told how to eat it (Matthew 26:26-29, Mark 14:22-25, Luke 22:17-20, 1 Corinthians 11:23-25), when to eat it and why eat it.

Look at the chart below:

OT Passover Physical slavery---------Egypt------------unspotted lamb-----------year after year Spiritual Slavery----------Sin--------------unspotted lamb-----------year after year This stopped completely before the fall of Judaism when the sacrifices ceased. Hebrews 7-10 tells us that what the priest had to do year after year for sin.

First Century Physical slavery---------Egypt------------unspotted lamb-----------year after year

This “Passover:” meal was still being preformed in the first century.

Spiritual slavery--------the law -------------Jesus Christ-----------Until He Comes

The “Lord’s Supper” was not necessary after the fall of Judaism. The Bible says that Jesus paid the price for sin once for all. (1 Peter 3:18, Hebrews 10:2,10, 7:27)

Read the section on sin and the law in my article “Does Satan exist today?” for more information.